Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Which of the following components of a network is responsible for translating data and providing connection points for media? A. Endpoints B. Routers C. Interconnections D. Switches https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html Which statements describe the benefits of using a variable-length subnet mask? (Choose two) A. It provides a better-defined network hierarchy within an address plan B. It ensures that only a single subnet mask within an entire Class is used C. It enables more efficient use of IP addresses D. It prevents aggregation of network addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/variable-length-subnet-mask.html In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms What commands describe the implemented outcomes when configuring multiarea OSPF? (Choose two) A. The [ip ospf area] command can be used to enable OSPF directly on an interface. B. The [ip ospf cost] command specifies the OSPF cost of directing a packet across the network to the destination. C. The [network area] command defines the network boundary and ospf routing process number. D. The [router ospf] command configures an OSPF routing process. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/multiarea-ospf-configuration.html Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. Which OSPF verification commands describe the operations they perform? (Choose two) A. The [show ip protocols] command displays the neighbor priorities along with interface dead timers. B. The [show ip route ospf] command is used to verify the OSPF status as well as which routing protocols are configured on a router. C. The [show ip ospf interface] command displays OSPF-related information on OSPF-enabled interfaces. D. The [show ip ospf neighbor] command displays the neighbor router ID, OSPF state, neighbor interface IP address and interface through which the neighbor is accessible. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/troubleshooting-multiarea-ospf.html Which command will assign a static link-local address to an interface? A. ipv6 address 2001::12:1 link-local B. ipv6 address 2001::12:1/64 link-local C. ipv6 address 2001::12:1 D. ipv6 address fe80::12:1/64 link-local E. ipv6 address fe80::12:1 link-local F. ipv6 address fe80::12:1 Which command displays information about security options configured on an interface? A. show port-security interface [interface-id] B. show port-security [interface-id] C. show port-security[address] D. show security [interface-id] You have changed the domain name for one server in a VTP domain to Sales. What happens to other servers with a domain name of null in the same VTP domain area? A. They will have a domain name of Sales B. They will need to have their domain name manually set C. They will display an error D. They will retain a domain name of null Which of the following commands will display information about the specific port channel interface? A. show etherchannel summary B. show interface port-channel C. show etherchannel port-channel https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/etherchannel-and-l3-redundancy/configuring-etherchannel.html If you want to be alerted when a device configuration differs from the intended configuration, what should you implement? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Why doesn't increasing the number of uplinks solve congestion issues from multiple links aggregating on a switch? A. All traffic must pass through one physical link B. Multiple links require extra overhead C. All uplinks must be running at the same speed D. STP disables ports to prevent loops Which statements best describe physical and logical topologies? (Choose two) A. The physical topology requires that data takes the shortest path across the network towards its destination B. The physical topology is dependent on the type of cabling that is used C. The logical topology can allow data to take a longer path across the network towards its destination D. The primary categories of logical topologies are bus, star, and mesh https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. What type of variable is being shown? Routers = [R1,R2,R3] A. List B. Dictionary C. Simple D. Unsigned integers Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP What is required for a directly connected route to be added to the routing table? (Choose two) A. The network command must be issued under the routing process B. BGP must be running on the router C. A local route must be manually created D. The IP route command must be configured in global configuration mode E. Configure an IP address on the interface F. The interface Status must be up and the Protocol must be up In what security zone are the public web servers located? A. DMZ B. Inside C. Outside D. Campus Devices using a wireless LAN must operate in which one of the following modes? A. Round-robin access B. Half duplex C. Full duplex D. None of these answers What are the VLAN design considerations? (Choose four) A. Both ends of an 802.1Q trunk link require matching native VLANs B. The native VLAN should be changed from VLAN 1 C. The maximum number of VLANs is 1001 D. DTP manages trunk negotiations between Cisco switches E. VLAN 0 is the factory default Ethernet VLAN F. The Cisco switch IP address should be in the management VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html What is the name of the protocol that is used by IEEE 802.1x devices to communicate with the authenticator and authentication server? A. EAP B. EAPoL C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ What options are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Broad network access B. Resource pooling C. Agile network access D. Proactive service Which IOS command always displays OSPF hello timer settings? A. show ip protocols B. show ip route C. show ip ospf interface D. show ip ospf neighbor E. debug ip ospf events Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two) A. discarding B. listening C. learning D. forwarding E. disabled https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Which statements correctly describe how ACLs function? (Choose two) A. There is an implicit deny all at the bottom of each ACL B. There is immediate execution upon a match C. The last entries in an ACL are processed first D. ACLs can be used only for filtering https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html What statements describe stateless autoconfiguration? (Choose two) A. At boot time nodes send router solicitations to promptly receive router advertisements B. Router advertisements are sent to the all-nodes multicast address C. Router advertisements are sent periodically by routers out their non-configured interfaces D. The ipv6 autoconfig [default] command configures the interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/stateless-autoconfiguration.html A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN? A. ping address B. tracert address C. traceroute address D. arp address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/troubleshooting-switched-network.html The configuration register on your Cisco IOS 2900 series router is set to 0x2101. How will the router choose the IOS image during the boot process? A. The last image located in flash will be booted B. The first image located in flash will be booted C. The image listed in the boot system command will be booted D. The image located on a TFTP server will be booted When comparing controller-based networks and traditional networks what are some perceived benefits from a controller-based perspective? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow the entire network to be instantiated and not just a single device at a time B. The use of automation through APIs that enable data-driven models C. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity You are troubleshooting an interface issue on your Cisco IOS ISR. The output of “show ip interface brief“ indicates that Ethernet0/0 is down, down. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose three) A. There is no cable attached to Ethernet0/0 B. The device at the other end of the cable is powered off C. The Ethernet0/0 interface is shutdown D. The interface on the device at the other end of the cable is shutdown E. There is an encapsulation mismatch between the devices at each end of the cable A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two) A. The LLQ B. Queue 1 C. Queue 2 D. Queue 3 You want to create a VLAN called Marketing. What is the first step you should take? A. Assign a port to the VLAN B. Assign the VLAN parameters C. Specify the VLAN name D. Specify the VLAN ID https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses may be used by hosts that do not know their network number and are asking a server for it? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html What does a 2900 ISR do if the POST is successful during start up, but there is no configuration file to load? A. It shuts down B. It creates a configuration file with default settings and loads user EXEC mode C. It initiates the system configuration dialog D. It reboots E. It enters ROMMON mode Which command stores passwords as an SHA-256 or MD5 hash? A. service password-encryption B. service password-encryption {sha256 \| md5} C. enable password {sha256 \| md5} D. enable hash-password E. None of the above. Which of these should be checked when troubleshooting end-to-end connectivity between IP addresses? (Choose three) A. The physical connection B. The default gateway C. The domain name resolution address D. The computer name E. The routing protocol Which of the following describes a dynamic NAT configuration? A. Manually configured, one-to-one address mapping B. Automatically assigned from an address pool, many-to-many address mapping C. Many-to-one address mapping https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/address-translation.html You need to verify which interfaces have been enabled for port security and the security action that will be taken if a violation occurs. Which show command will provide this information? A. show interfaces B. show port-security interface C. show port-security address D. show port-security E. show ip interface F. show ip interface brief Which switch ”show” command is used frequently when checking line and protocol status? A. show version B. show interfaces C. show running-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud What is the calculator of the total cost of a particular path referred to? A. Checksum B. Metric C. Bandwidth D. Length What is the wildcard mask equivalent of the subnet mask /23? A. 0.0.0.1 B. 0.0.3.255 C. 0.0.1.255 D. 0.0.0.0 E. 0.0.0.3 F. 0.0.7.255 G. 0.0.0.7 Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured? A. default-information originate B. default-information originate always C. default-information originate permanent D. default-information originate no-check Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS Which command is used to disable CDP on an interface? A. no lldp enable B. no run C. no lldp run D. no cdp enable E. no enable F. no cdp run A MAC address table can store a number of address entries. However, sometimes conditions can cause the MAC address table to be empty. Identify these conditions. (Choose three) A. The switch is unplugged B. The switch loses power C. The switch is rebooted D. The switch floods broadcast communication E. The switch receives an Address Resolution Protocol or ARP request https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/developing-design-for-layer-2.html Which cloud service is owned and operated by a third party and allows people from a variety of different companies to request and use its resources? A. Hybrid cloud B. Internet cloud C. Private cloud D. Public cloud You need to back up the Cisco IOS image for your 2900 ISR. Which command can be used to verify the size of the IOS image that you will be backing up? A. show startup-config B. show vlan brief C. show version D. show platform nvram E. show running-config F. show flash You have just upgraded your Cisco IOS image on your Cisco 2900 ISR from 12.4 to the following image: C2900-universalk9-mz.SPA-152-4.M1.bin You have also deleted the 12.4 IOS image from the ISR. However, when you issue the “show version“ command, you notice that the 12.4 operating system is still in use. How do you solve this issue? A. Issue the command copy tftp flash B. Issue the boot system command C. Reboot the router D. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration E. Issue the command copy flash tftp The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10.

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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