Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
What are the valid encapsulation methods when forcing a device to become a trunk port? (Choose three) A. private-vlan B. dot1q-tunnel C. dot1q D. negotiate E. isl What are some perceived benefits of controller-based networks as compared to traditional networks? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind B. The use of APIs to mass-configure network devices, allowing for more consistency and fewer errors C. The use of DevOps approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses typically uses the IP address 127.0.0.1? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html You have configured your PC with multiple default gateways. R1 is the primary default gateway. R2 is the secondary default gateway. What is the best action to ensure redundancy of the default gateway if R1 goes down? A. Create an entry in the R1 routing table to route traffic to R2 B. Manually change the primary default gateway from R1 to R2 C. Ensure that you are using a First Hop Redundancy Protocol D. Nothing, as multiple gateways have been configured enable secret [password] is hashed using the _______ algorithm. A. MD5 B. AH C. PSK D. ESP E. WPA2 Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? A. ip default-gateway B. ip route C. ip default-network D. ip address dhcp E. ip address dynamic Which of the following describes the Rapid PVST+ protocol? A. Assumes one 802.1D spanning tree for the entire bridged network B. Provides a separate 802.1D spanning tree for each virtual LAN, or VLAN, configured C. Provides fast conversion with a single instance of STP D. Provides fast conversion with an instance of spanning tree per VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html What Inter-VLAN routing method uses a single physical link between a router and a switch? A. Layer 3 Switch B. Router with separate interfaces for each VLAN C. Router on a Stick D. Multilayer Switch You can use the Cisco IOS ”copy” command to move configurations from one component or device to another. Which of the following commands will copy a file from the TFTP server and will download it to the RAM? A. erase startup-config B. copy tftp running-config C. copy running-config tftp D. copy running-config startup-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/network-environment-management/managing-devices.html Which command will assign a global IPv6 address with an autoconfigured interface portion to a router interface? A. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::0001/64 eui-64 B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::0001/64 auto-configure C. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64 auto-configure D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64 eui-64 E. ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:1::/64 R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. You want to disable the negotiation of trunking for all FastEthernet ports. Which commands are required to do this? (Choose two) A. interface range FastEthernet 0/1-24 B. show vlan brief C. switchport access vlan 2 D. switchport mode access Each virtual OS instance that exists on a server is referred to as a ___________ A. KVM B. VM C. CSR D. hypervisor Which of the following four TCP/IP layers supports network APIs that allow programs created for a particular operating system to access the network? A. Network Access B. Transport C. Internet D. Application https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html Which of the following four TCP/IP layers represents the core of the TCP/IP architecture? A. Network Access B. Transport C. Internet D. Application https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device (referenced with the arrow) that communicates with wireless clients? A. Wireless controller B. Access point C. Router D. Wireless bridge Which of the following behaviors is applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (Choose two) A. Congestion management B. Shaping C. Policing D. Priority scheduling E. Round robin scheduling Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true? A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table. B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN. C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN. D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/developing-design-for-layer-2.html In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP When are VTP messages sent to clients for synchronization while using a VTP server? (Choose two) A. Every five minutes by default B. Every ten minutes by default C. Only when manually triggered D. Any time there is a change What are the symptoms of a spanning-tree failure? (Choose two) A. Link loads decrease as frames are discarded from the loop B. Nontrunking ports become trunking ports C. Switches experience frequent MAC address table changes D. Traffic increases exponentially if additional loops exist https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/redundant-topologies.html Which command displays information about security options configured on an interface? A. show port-security interface [interface-id] B. show port-security [interface-id] C. show port-security[address] D. show security [interface-id] Which type of unicast address is automatically configured on all interfaces that are enabled for IPv6? A. Unique local B. Global C. Link-local D. Site local Which spanning-tree standard improves convergence over 1998 STP by adding roles to ports and enhancing BPDU exchanges? A. IEEE 802.1D B. 802.1s (MSTP) C. Rapid PVST+ D. 802.1w (RSTP) E. PVST+ Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2 Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 How does creating an access list differ in IPv6 from IPv4? (Choose two) A. Prefix length can be used B. It is automatically applied to an interface C. Operator ports can be used D. Wildcard masks are not used Which of the following commands is used to indicate the real true speed of the interface? A. no shutdown B. interface serial C. show controllers D. clockrate E. bandwidth https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/wan-technologies/serial-encapsulation.html Connections can be verified using a variety of troubleshooting commands. Which of the following commands uses ICMP messages to determine whether a host is active? A. netstat B. tracert C. ping D. nslookup https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html What is the best definition of a WAN? A. Remote access to resources across a high speed link B. Local access to resources C. Local Internet access D. Core network resources Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP How does the static default route appear in the routing table for IPv6? A. ::/0 B. :: C. 0:0 D. 0/:: E. 0.0.0.0/0 Which layer of the OSI model ensures that information sent from the application layer of one system is readable by the application layer of another? A. Session B. Network C. Transport D. Application E. Data-link F. Presentation https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html Which dynamic routing protocol uses cost as its metric? A. OSPF B. BGP C. RIP D. EIGRP Which of the following components of a network provides network attachment to end systems? A. Endpoints B. Routers C. Interconnections D. Switches https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. What are the considerations when operating in the VTP transparent mode? (Choose two) A. Changes are automatically saved to the vlan.dat file B. The configuration revision number will always be zero C. No manual changes are allowed to VLAN information D. Anytime you make a change to VLAN information, you should copy the running configuration to the startup configuration What commands would you need to configure to enable DHCP Snooping so that PC4 couldn’t become a rogue DHCP server? A. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/12, ip dhcp snooping trust B. Configure the following on SW 1: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust C. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust D. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust E. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/12, ip dhcp snooping trust F. Configure the following on SW 1: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust What commands describe the implemented outcomes when configuring multiarea OSPF? (Choose two) A. The [ip ospf area] command can be used to enable OSPF directly on an interface. B. The [ip ospf cost] command specifies the OSPF cost of directing a packet across the network to the destination. C. The [network area] command defines the network boundary and ospf routing process number. D. The [router ospf] command configures an OSPF routing process. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/multiarea-ospf-configuration.html Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing Why should you implement port security on a switch interface? A. To control which devices are allowed to access the network B. To prevent Layer 2 loops from occurring C. To prevent a unidirectional link D. To prevent MAC address flooding attacks E. To control which devices are allowed to manage the switch Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Wireless controller C. Lightweight AP D. Wireless router Which command is used to enable port security on an interface? A. switchport port-security mac-address sticky B. show port-security interface C. switchport port-security D. switchport port-security violation shutdown https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/switch-security.html Which cloud service model gives a customer complete control over the virtual hardware components, including processor performance, network connectivity, how much memory and storage space is required, and potentially the operating system that is preinstalled? A. SaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. TaaS What steps are involved in configuring IPv4 extended access lists? (Choose three) A. Create an extended named ACL B. Apply the ACL globally to the router C. Apply the ACL to an interface D. Specify the conditions to permit or deny packets E. Ensure that the ACL ends with a Deny ALL statement Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms What will the solicited node multicast address be for the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1001:F:2C0:10FF:FE17:FC0F? A. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:10FF:FE17:FC0F B. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FF17:FC0F C. 2001:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FF17:FC0F D. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FE17:FC0F Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose two) A. Uses HTTP B. Objects noted as to whether they can be cached C. Classful operation D. Client/server architecture

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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