Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured? A. default-information originate B. default-information originate always C. default-information originate permanent D. default-information originate no-check The IPv6 address “2001:db8:abc:1234:0290:27ff:fe17:fc0f/64“ is assigned to a device. How was the interface portion assigned? A. Manually, using DHCPv6 B. Dynamically, using a random generator C. Manually by an administrator D. Dynamically, using EUI-64 You have set up NAT on your edge router for private to public translations. Which of the following can be verified with the show ip nat translations command? (Choose three) A. The inside interface and outside interface B. The public IPv4 address that a private IPv4 address was translated to C. The private IPv4 address that was translated D. The NAT pool that is being used E. The ACL that is being used F. The public IPv4 address that the translated packet is destined The IP component of TCP/IP determines where packets of data are routed based on their destination addresses. IP has certain characteristics that are related to how it manages this function. Identify the characteristics of the Internet Protocol. (Choose three) A. An Internet Protocol version 4, or IPv4, address contains 32 bits B. IP is a layer 3 media-independent connectionless protocol that uses hierarchical logical addressing and provides best-effort service C. IP works at the transport layer of the TCP/IP stack D. An IPv4 header address field contains a 32-bit binary value that represents the IP address of the sender E. An IPv4 header address field contains a 24-bit binary value that represents the IP address of the receiving endpoint https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html Which of the following is describing the Dynamic desirable mode of Dynamic Trunking Protocol? A. Creates a trunk with the neighboring switch based on the DTP request B. Enables trunking on the interface C. Trunking cannot take place on the port regardless of DTP requests D. Sends a DTP communication that it wants to create a trunk with the neighboring switch E. DTP frames are prevented from being generated from the port https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/dynamic-trunking-protocol.html You need to back up the Cisco IOS image of your Catalyst switch to a tftp server. Where is the Cisco IOS image stored? A. Flash B. RAM C. HTTP D. FTP E. USB F. NVRAM Which DSCP Assured Forwarding value provides the worst drop and worst queue performance? A. AF41 B. AF43 C. AF11 D. AF13 Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two) A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information. B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment. C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information. D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment. E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-1-internetworking/data-encapsulation.html Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Which of the following components executes operating system instructions? A. Interface B. ROM C. Flash D. RAM E. CPU F. NVRAM https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/router-internal-components-overview.html Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two) A. The LLQ B. Queue 1 C. Queue 2 D. Queue 3 What type of banner should you configure when you want the message to be displayed anytime a user is required to enter usernames and passwords for management sessions? A. incoming B. motd C. login D. EXEC In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP What is the destination address of a router solicitation packet? A. FF02::2 B. FF02::A C. FF02::9 D. FF02::6 E. FF02::1 F. FF02::5 Which of the following describes a Private IPv6 address? A. ::1 B. Starts with FE80::/10 C. Represented by :: D. Starts with 2000::/3 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html Which state of the default STP configuration allows ports to listen for BPDUs but not send any? A. Listening B. Learning C. Blocking D. Forwarding Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2? A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2. B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree. C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology. D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch. In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN What causes speed-related port access issues? (Choose two) A. Both ends of the segment are set to autonegotiate speed B. The distance between the first and last host on the segment is too long C. The duplex setting on both ends is set to full duplex D. One end is set to autonegotiate and the other to high speed https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/troubleshooting-switch-issues.html Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses? A. 192.168.1.56/26 B. 192.168.1.56/27 C. 192.168.1.64/26 D. 192.168.1.64/27 Cisco devices use IOS software that includes extensive command-line input help functions as well as context-sensitive help. Which CLI command would you enter to display a list of commands that begin with the letter c? A. c help B. c ? C. c? D. help c https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-4-cisco-ios/command-line-interface.html While configuring a switch, you noticed a configuration issue with an EtherChannel bundle. You thought you corrected the issue, but the change didn't take effect on the EtherChannel bundle. What is the mostly likely cause of this problem? A. The changes haven't propagated to the other interfaces B. You made the change on the interface directly and not the EtherChannel bundle C. You were in the wrong mode when you made the change D. You need to make the change on all interfaces that are part of the bundle In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? A. The address of the attacker B. The address of the reflector C. The address of the victim D. The address of the router What commands describe the implemented outcomes when configuring multiarea OSPF? (Choose two) A. The [ip ospf area] command can be used to enable OSPF directly on an interface. B. The [ip ospf cost] command specifies the OSPF cost of directing a packet across the network to the destination. C. The [network area] command defines the network boundary and ospf routing process number. D. The [router ospf] command configures an OSPF routing process. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/multiarea-ospf-configuration.html Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose two) A. Uses HTTP B. Objects noted as to whether they can be cached C. Classful operation D. Client/server architecture An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. You have configured your PC with multiple default gateways. R1 is the primary default gateway. R2 is the secondary default gateway. What is the best action to ensure redundancy of the default gateway if R1 goes down? A. Create an entry in the R1 routing table to route traffic to R2 B. Manually change the primary default gateway from R1 to R2 C. Ensure that you are using a First Hop Redundancy Protocol D. Nothing, as multiple gateways have been configured Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config Which statements define the term block size? (Choose two) A. It is determined exclusively based on the subnet mask B. It is always a value of 8 C. It is the total number of IPv4 addresses within a subnet D. It is the progression between subnets within a specific octet E. It is determined based on the IPv4 address and subnet mask F. It is always a value of 2 A _________ is a virtual instance of a traditional networking device that a consumer can use in a cloud. A. virtual network function B. virtual network appliance C. network virtualized element D. network cloud device You are troubleshooting the components involved in IPv6 end-to-end connectivity on a Mac computer. Please select the command you will use to check whether an ACL is attached to an interface. A. show ipv6 interface B. show ipv6 route C. show ipv6 access-list D. ping E. ipconfig F. ifconfig https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-ipv6-connectivity.html Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B Which of the following describes a dynamic NAT configuration? A. Manually configured, one-to-one address mapping B. Automatically assigned from an address pool, many-to-many address mapping C. Many-to-one address mapping https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/address-translation.html Which technology do we use to turn the public Internet into a private secure environment? A. Core Access B. Intranet C. Distribution Access D. VPN Which command is used to display the open ports on a router so that you can determine which services should be disabled? A. show ports open host B. show control-plane host open-ports C. show flash D. show file system Identify the steps used to configure a point-to-point Ethernet-emulated WAN link. (Choose two) A. Configure demand multicasting B. Configure a dynamic route C. Turn on the interfaces D. Define a description for the WAN link https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/configuring-a-router.html Which statements describe a trunk operation? (Choose two) A. It carries traffic for a single virtual LAN, or VLAN B. It's the link between an Ethernet switch interface and a router C. Cisco supports the 802.1 Q trunking protocol D. It excludes traffic from the native VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/trunk-operations.html What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72? A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72 B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72 C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72 D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/the-ipv6-address.html Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Lightweight AP C. Wireless controller D. Wireless router Which of the following components of a network represent personal computers used to send and receive data? A. Endpoints B. Routers C. Interconnections D. Switches https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html With IEEE 802.1x, which role does a LAN switch typically play? A. Authentication server B. Supplicant C. Translator D. Authenticator From the following options, what are the required REST API attributes? (Choose two) A. JSON-formatted data B. Unlayered systems C. Layered systems D. Client-server architecture What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command You have taken the 172.16.0.0/16 network and subnetted it to a /23. The end result of this created 128 subnets. The first four subnet IDs are 172.16.0.0/23, 172.16.2.0/23, 172.16.4.0/23, and 172.16.6.0/23. What are the fifth and sixth subnet IDs? (Choose two) A. 172.16.10.0/23 B. 172.16.9.0/23 C. 172.16.7.0/23 D. 172.16.8.0/23 E. 172.16.11.0/23 An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN It is typical for server processors to utilize a technique that allows each physical processing core to be split into a number of virtual cores; this is commonly referred to as __________. A. processor virtualization B. multi-threading C. virtual processing D. processor switching R1, R2, R3, and R4 have their Fast Ethernet 0/0 interfaces attached to the same VLAN. A network engineer has typed a configuration for each router by using a word processor. He will later copy and paste the configuration into the routers. Examine the following exhibit, which lists configuration for the four routers, as typed by the network engineer. Assuming that all four routers can ping each other’s LAN IP addresses after the configuration has been applied, choose the routers that will be able to form a neighbor relationship with the other routers on the LAN. (You can assume that, if not shown in the exhibit, all other related parameters are still set to their defaults.) (Choose two) A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. None of the routers will exchange routing information. Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device (referenced with the arrow) that communicates with wireless clients? A. Wireless controller B. Access point C. Router D. Wireless bridge Which command is used on a Cisco IOS router to enable the DHCP Relay Agent feature on an interface? A. ip dhcp helper B. ip dhcp relay C. ip helper-address D. ip dhcp relay-agent E. ip dhcp transmit F. ip dhcp helper-address Which options are not one of the manageable QoS characteristics of network traffic? (Choose two) A. Delay B. Jitter C. Queue size D. Clock rate E. Bandwidth F. Loss Which statements correctly describe a standard IPv4 ACL? (Choose two) A. Uses protocols and port numbers for matching B. Uses source and destination IP address for matching C. Permits or denies the entire protocol suite D. Only uses the source IP address for matching E. Can only be created as numbered ACLs

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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